Deleted Question on SemiSimple and Projective but not Injective Module
Posted on January 14, 2021
 3 minutes
 Vincent Tam

0 comment
A backup of a deleted PSQ : https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3955443/290189
OP : irfanmat
It has a detailed answer by Atticus Stonestrom. It’s pity that his post got deleted. As there’s no reason for undeletion, I’m posting it here so as to preserve the contents.
Question body Is there a semisimple and projective but not injective module? I will be glad if you help.
Response(s) In the noncommutative case, the answer is yes.
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Ways to Draw Diagrams Displayed on Math.SE
Posted on December 23, 2020
 2 minutes
 Vincent Tam

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I wanted to start a meta question, but I don’t see a point of that after viewing some related posts listed at the end of the next subsection.
Intended question You may vote on your preferred way.
Ways Advantages Disadvantages AMScd supported on Math.SE for a long time no diagonal arrowssyntax less wellknownTwoway arrows $\rightleftarrows$ look odd array supported on Math.SE for a long timeeasier syntaxwrite basic diagonal arrows like $\nearrow$ fine tuning spacing is harddiagonal arrows only work for neighboring nodes ASCIIFlow WYSIWYG interface lines are rendered as slashes in code TikZ well known syntaxcan draw pretty diagrams not supported on SE, need to import as picture others?
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My Intended Trigo Answer
Posted on May 1, 2019
(Last modified on February 17, 2021)
 1 minutes
 Vincent Tam

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The Math.SE question $2\cos(2x)  2\sin(x) = 0$ has attracted several
answers from highrep users.
I am expanding @rhombic’s comment into an answer.
$$
\begin{aligned}
2\cos(2x)2\sin(x)&=0 \\
2  4\sin^2(x)2\sin(x)&=0 \\
2\sin^2(x)+\sin(x)  1&=0 \\
(2 \sin(x)  1)(\sin(x) +1) &= 0 \\
\sin(x) = \frac12 \text{ or } \sin(x) &= 1 \\
x = \frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{5\pi}{6} \text{ (rejected) or } & \frac{3\pi}{2}
\text{ (rejected)}
\end{aligned}
$$
JavaScript Copy Button
Posted on April 26, 2019
(Last modified on April 27, 2019)
 3 minutes
 Vincent Tam

0 comment
Goal To create a copy button for my Math.SE comment template in order to save the trouble of copying and pasting.
My first attempt I put the boilerplate inside a Markdown codeblock to prevent them from getting interpreted by Hugo’s Markdown parser. Under each codeblock, I placed the copy button.
Comment boilerplate goes here ... π
Another comment boilerplate goes here ... π
…
My page’s original layout
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My Dual Answer
Posted on April 26, 2019
(Last modified on February 17, 2021)
 2 minutes
 Vincent Tam

1 comment
Update: The question has been reopened.
I intended to answer κΉμ’
ν’s problem on Math.SE. However, the programs in the question body aren’t typeset in MathJax. As a result, I downvoted and closed this question because found it unclear. From the proposed dual, it seems that I shouldn’t interpret the primal as a linear program. Anyways, without further clarifications from OP, I found no reason to look at this further.
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Borel Cantelli Exercise 2019
Posted on February 4, 2019
(Last modified on February 16, 2021)
 1 minutes
 Vincent Tam

1 comment
I intend to post this for a BorelCantelli lemma exercise on
Math.SE.
The target event is ${\exists i_0 \in \Bbb{N} : \forall i \ge i_0, X_i =
1}$, whose complement is
$$
{\forall i_0 \in \Bbb{N} : \exists i \ge i_0, X_i > = 0}
= \limsup_i {X_i = 0}.
$$
To apply BorelCantelli, one has to determine whether $\sum_i P(X_i =
0)<+\infty$.
Weak LLN Practice
Posted on December 2, 2018
(Last modified on February 17, 2021)
 1 minutes
 Vincent Tam

0 comment
My intended answer to a weak LLN problem on Math.SE.
Problem: Suppose $(X_n)$ is a sequence of r.v’s satisfying $P(X_n=\pm\ln (n))=\frac{1}{2}$ for each $n=1,2\dots$. I am trying to show that $(X_n)$ satisfies the weak LLN.
The idea is to show that $P(\overline{X_n}>\varepsilon)$ tends to 0, but I am unsure how to do so.
My solution: As in the accepted answer in OP’s previous question https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3021650/290189, I’ll assume the independence of $(X_n)$.
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Solution to a $p$test Exercise
Posted on November 20, 2018
(Last modified on February 16, 2021)
 1 minutes
 Vincent Tam

0 comment
I intended to answer Maddle’s $p$test question, but T. Bongers has beaten me by two minutes, so I posted my answer here to save my work.
The problem statement
This is the sum: $$\sum\limits_{n=3}^\infty\frac{1}{n\cdot\ln(n)\cdot\ln(\ln(n))^p}$$ How do I tell which values of $p$ allow this to converge? The ratio test isn’t working out for me at all.
Unpublished solution The integral test will do.
$$ \begin{aligned} & \int_3^{+\infty} \frac{1}{x\cdot\ln(x)\cdot\ln(\ln(x))^p} \,dx \\ &= \int_3^{+\infty} \frac{1}{\ln(x)\cdot\ln(\ln(x))^p} \,d(\ln x) \\ &= \int_3^{+\infty} \frac{1}{\ln(\ln(x))^p} \,d(\ln(\ln(x))) \\ &= \begin{cases} [\ln(\ln(\ln(x)))]_3^{+\infty} & \text{if } p = 1 \\ \left[\dfrac{[\ln(\ln(x))}{p+1}]^{p+1} \right]_3^{+\infty} & \text{if } p \ne 1 \end{cases} \end{aligned} $$ When $p \ge 1$, the improper integral diverges.
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